How do I explain why using 'baseis' as a plural of 'basis' is just wrong to one of my lecturers? Other then just saying it's not a choice, the English plural is 'bases'...
Do you mean "baseis" as opposed to "basies"? I guess the points you can use in support to saying that the plural should be something are as many as possible of:
(i) Everyone else says that. This is apparently so. (ii) Whoever used it first says that. I don't know, you could try looking that up. (iii) Parallels. What are the most common plurals of words derived/spelt similarly? I should be able to think more about this one, but I'm tired.
I don't see that it is "just wrong". "Basis" is a Greek word, and, as you no doubt know, "baseis" is the correct Greek plural. The plural "bases" is a Latinisation. The normal English plural rule would give "basises", which is admittedly rather a mouthful or (more plausibly) "basis". The only basis on which "bases" can be said to be correct is that it is established usage.
This is because I've been correcting the notes and included this as a correction which he then disagreed with. Not a big deal, mainly just was trying to work out how to respond and unsure whether I ever would.
no subject
Date: 2006-10-24 06:01 pm (UTC)(i) Everyone else says that. This is apparently so.
(ii) Whoever used it first says that. I don't know, you could try looking that up.
(iii) Parallels. What are the most common plurals of words derived/spelt similarly? I should be able to think more about this one, but I'm tired.
no subject
Date: 2006-10-24 06:34 pm (UTC)no subject
Date: 2006-10-25 10:45 am (UTC)no subject
Date: 2006-10-25 06:09 pm (UTC)